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Best Ultrasound MCQs Part 1 - radiologystar

Best Ultrasound MCQs Part 1

 

Practice and improve your knowledge of best ultrasound mcqs fundamentals. This comprehensive set of 50+ multiple choice questions covers topics like propagation of ultrasound waves, attenuation, resolution, artifacts, bioeffects, Doppler ultrasound principles. Sharpen your skills and test your understanding of the essential concepts in diagnostic medical sonography.

 

1. What type of wave is sound?

A. Mechanical, transverse

B. Mechanical, longitudinal

C. Transverse, longitudinal

D. Lateral wave

ANS:- B

2. The frequency ranges for ultrasound are:

A. <20 Hz

B. 20 to 20,000 Hz

C. >20 kHz

D. > 2000 Hz

ANS:-C

3. The speed of sound in soft tissue is:

A. 1.54 mm/s

B. 1540 m/s

C. 1540 km/s

D. 1.54 m/μs

ANS:-B

4. Which of the following transducers fires the elements in groups?

A. Linear sequenced array

B. Phased array

C. Continuous-wave transducer

D. Single-element transducer

ANS:-A

5. The unit for wavelength is:

A. Millimeters

B. Hertz

C. Microseconds

D. Milliliters

ANS:-A

6. Enhancement is caused by:

A. Strongly reflecting structures

B. Propagation speed errors

C. Snell’s law

D. Weakly attenuating structures

ANS:-D

7. The wavelength in a material having a propagation speed of 1.5 mm/μs employing a transducer frequency of 5.0 MHz is:

A. 0.3 mm

B. 0.3 cm

C. 0.6 mm

D. 3.0 mm

ANS:-A

8. An ultrasound transducer converts:

A. Electrical energy into light and heat

B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy

C. Mechanical energy into radiation

D. Sound into ultrasound

ANS:-B

9. Arrange the following media in correct order from the lowest attenuation to highest:

A. Air, fat, muscle, bone

B. Muscle, fat, air, blood

C. Fat, muscle, bone, air

D. Muscle, air, fat, bone

ANS:-C

10. Arrange the following media in terms of propagation speed, from lowest to highest:

A. Air, fat, muscle, bone

B. Bone, fat, air, muscle

C. Bone, muscle, fat, air

D. Muscle, air, fat, bone

ANS:-A

11. If the frequency doubles, what happens to the wavelength?

A. Increases fourfold

B. Increases twofold

C. Decreases by one half

D. Frequency has no relationship to wavelength

ANS:-C

12. What happens to intensity if the amplitude of a signal is halved?

A. Quartered

B. Quadrupled

C. Halved

D. No change

ANS:-A

13. Which of the following would be used to describe the percentage of time that sound is on?

A. Intensity

B. Amplitude

C. SPTA

D. Duty factor

ANS:-D

14. A 3-dB gain would indicate an increase in intensity by:

A. 2 times

B. 4 times

C. 8 times

D. 10 times

ANS:-A

15. Ignoring the effects of attenuation, the intensity of the ultrasound beam is usually greater at the focal zone because of:

A. Decreased attenuation

B. The smaller beam diameter

C. Diffraction effects

D. A shorter duty factor

ANS:-B

 

16. Attenuation denotes:

A. Progressive weakening of the sound beam as it travels

B. Density of tissue and the speed of sound in the tissues

C. The redirection of the ultrasound back to the transducer

D. Bending of the transmitted wave after crossing an interface

ANS:-A

17. Which of the following has the lowest intensity?

A.SPTP

B. SATP

C. SPTA

D. SATA

ANS:-D

18. What is the definition of the beam uniformity ratio?

A. The spatial intensity divided by the temporal intensity

B. The spatial peak intensity divided by the spatial average intensity

C. The temporal average intensity divided by the spatial average intensity

D. The temporal peak intensity divided by the spatial peak intensity

ANS:-B

19. Continuous-wave Doppler has a duty factor of:

A. <1%

B. 100%

C. >100%

D. 50%

ANS:-B

 

20. The spatial pulse length is defined as the product of the _____ and the number of _____ in a pulse.

A. Cycles, frequency

B. Frequency, velocity

C. Wavelength, cycles

D. Frequency, wavelength

ANS:-C

21. With phased array transducers, the transmitted sound beam is steered by:

A. Mechanically sweeping the piezoelectric elements

B. Mechanically rotating the piezoelectric elements

C. Varying the timing of pulses to the individual piezoelectric elements

D. Varying the amplitude of pulses to the individual piezoelectric elements

ANS:-C

 

22. If the gain of an amplifier is 18 dB, what is the new gain if the power is reduced by half?

A. 15 dB

B. 9 dB

C. 36 dB

D. 0.5 dB

ANS:-A

23. Which of the following is true?

A. SPTA is always equal to or greater than SPTP

B. SPTP is always equal to or greater than SPTA

C. SATA is always equal to or greater than SATP

D. SPTA is equal to or greater than SPTP

ANS:-B

24. If the amplitude of a wave is increased threefold, the power will:

A. Decrease threefold

B. Increase threefold

C. Increase ninefold

D. Increase sixfold

ANS:-C

 

25. Ultrasound attenuates an average of ________ dB/cm of travel for each megahertz of frequency.

A. 1

B. 0.7

C. 0.33

D. 0.25

ANS:-B

26. If the intensity transmission coefficient is 0.74, the intensity reflection coefficient will be:

A. 1.06

B. 6.00

C. 0.26

D. 0.04

ANS:-C

27. Acoustic impedance is defined as the product of:

A. The mismatch between two interfaces

B. A change in velocity at oblique incidence

C. The speed of sound in tissue and density of the tissue

D. The wavelength and frequency

ANS:-C

28. Rayleigh scattering is an example of:

A. A reflector whose size is smaller than the wavelength

B. A reflector whose size is significantly larger than the wavelength

C. A specular reflection

D. A type of side lobe artifact

ANS:-A

29. Assuming normal incidence, if medium 2 impedance is equal to medium 1 impedance:

A. 100% of the intensity will be reflected

B. 100% of the intensity will be transmitted

C. The reflection and transmission coefficients will be equal

D. The answer cannot be determined without values given

ANS:-B

30. What is the total attenuation of a 3.5-MHz pulse after passing through 2 cm of soft tissue?

A. 7 dB

B. 3.5 dB

C. 17 dB

D. 1.75 dB

ANS:-B

31. The thinner the piezoelectric element:

A. The lower the frequency

B. The higher the frequency

C. The higher the amplitude

D. The lower the amplitude

ANS:-B

32. The unit for impedance is:

A. dB

B. mW/cm2

C. Rayls

D. No units

ANS:-C

33. A sound beam encounters an interface at a 90° angle. If the speed of sound in the first tissue is 1540 m/s and the speed of sound in the second tissue is 1450 m/s, which of the following numbers most closely approximates the angle of beam transmission?

A. <90°

B.90°

C. >90°

D. Need the impedance to compute angle of transmission

ANS:-B

34. ALARA stands for:

A. As Low As Reasonably Achievable

B. As Long As Reasonably Acceptable

C. As Little As Reasonably Allowable

D. As Long As Reasonably Achievable

ANS:-A

35. A decibel (dB) describes the:

A. Ratio of two sound intensities

B. Sum of two sound intensities

C. Amount of scattering

D. Velocity of the sound wave

ANS:-A

 

36. The correct equation for Snell’s law is:

A. R = (Z2 – Z,)2/(Z2 + z,)2

B. Z = pc

C. sin ~ = (CzfC,) x sin Bi

D. Fd = 2fvcos (le

ANS:-C

37. The attenuation coefficient of sound in soft tissue can be defined by which of the following equations?

A. One half the frequency times the path length

B. Frequency/6

C. Frequency/2

D. Frequency x 2

ANS:-C

38. The intensity transmission coefficient is equal to:

A. 1 + intensity reflection coefficient

B. 1 – intensity reflection coefficient

C. The square of the angle of transmission

D. (Intensity transmission coefficient)/2

ANS:-B

39. The range equation explains:

A. Side lobes

B. Distance to reflector

C. Attenuation

D. Calibration

ANS:-B

40. The typical value for attenuation coefficient for 6-MHz ultrasound in soft tissue is:

A. 3 dB/cm

B. 1 dB/cm/Hz

C. 3 dB/cm2

 

ANS:- A

41. What must be known in order to calculate distance to a reflector?

A. Attenuation, propagation speed, density

B. Attenuation, impedance

C. Travel time, propagation speed

D. Density, propagation speed

ANS:-C

42. Specular reflections:

A. Occur when the interface is larger than the wavelength

B. Occur when the interface is smaller than the wavelength

C. Arise from interfaces smaller than 3 mm

D. Are not dependent on the angle of incidence

ANS:-A

43. What is the reflected intensity from a boundary between two materials if the incident intensity is 1 mW/cm2 and the impedances are 25 and 75?

A. 0.25 mW/cm2

B. 0.33 mW/cm2

C. 0.50 mW/cm2

D. 1.0 mW/cm2

ANS:-A

44. The layer of material within the transducer which has an intermediate impedance between the transducer element and human tissue is known as the:

A. Filler medium

B. Damping medium

C. Acoustic medium

D. Matching layer

ANS:-D

45. Which of the following relates bandwidth to operating frequency?

A. Near zone

B. Piezoelectric crystal

C. Quality factor

D. Far zone

ANS:-C

46. The piezoelectric effect can best be described as:

A. Density of tissue and the speed of sound in the tissues

B. Mechanical deformation that results from a high voltage applied to the face of the crystal that in turn generates a pressure
wave

C. The increase in intensity that occurs as the beam area decreases in tissue

D. The decrease in intensity that results from the application of a damping material

ANS:-B

47. Which of the following are most commonly used in ultrasound transducers?

A. Lead zirconate titanate

B. Barium sulfate

C. Epoxy loaded with tungsten

D. Quartz

ANS:-A

48. Diffraction refers to:

A. Spreading out of the ultrasound beam

B. Conversion of sound to heat

C. Reflection of the beam at an interface

D. Bending of the sound beam crossing a boundary

ANS:-A

49. The preferred method for sterilizing ultrasound transducers is:

A. High temperature sterilization

B. Steam

C. Cold sterilization

D. Autoclave

ANS:-C

50. A transducer with which frequency would have the thickest element(s)?

A. 2 MHz

B. 3.5 MHz

C. 5 MHz

D. 7.5 MHz

ANS:-A

 

 

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